What does per se mean in law?

Asked by: Sydnee Kutch Sr.  |  Last update: February 19, 2022
Score: 5/5 (15 votes)

Latin for “by itself,” in other words, inherently. For example, in tort law, a statutory violation is negligence per se. ... If a defendant violated a statute, the plaintiff does not need to prove the defendant breached their duty because a person inherently breaches this duty when they violate the statute.

What is a per se rule in law?

Related Content. A type of antitrust analysis used to determine the legality of agreements (written or oral) between competitors. Under the per se rule, certain categories of agreements are presumed to violate antitrust laws, regardless of other factors such as business purpose or competitive benefits.

What is a per se offense?

1. "Per se," is a Latin phrase that means "by itself." In other words, having a 0.08 BAC by itself means that you are guilty of driving while intoxicated without regard to any other evidence.

What is the difference between the rule of reason and the per se rule Why is this relevant?

The rule of reason is exactly opposite to the Per Se Rule, that is, the informant holds the onus of proving the information alleged by them or any anti-competitive agreement claimed by them. Section 3 (1) of the act might cause or likely may cause an appreciable adverse effect.

Which of the following practices is illegal per se?

Business practices considered per se illegal under antitrust laws include: (a) horizontal agreements to fix prices, (b) horizontal market allocation agreements, (c) bid rigging among competitors; (d) certain horizontal group boycotts by competitors; and (e) sometimes tying arrangements.

Quick look of Legal Maxim - Actionable Per Se | By Advocate Rajesh Kumar Dudani

25 related questions found

What is per se exclusion?

— called also flat rule. 2 : a rule that considers a particular restraint of trade to be manifestly contrary to competition and so does not require an inquiry into precise harm or purpose for an instance of it to be declared illegal applied the per se rule to price-fixing by public utilities — compare rule of reason.

Is monopolization per se illegal?

Section 2 of the Sherman Act makes it unlawful for any person to "monopolize, or attempt to monopolize, or combine or conspire with any other person or persons, to monopolize any part of the trade or commerce among the several States, or with foreign nations . . . ."

How do you use per se in a sentence?

You can use 'per se' whenever you are describing something in and of itself. For example, you could say: “Your paragraph on the ethics of the True Crime genre is thought-provoking per se, but not pertinent to your article overall.”

Should per se have an accent?

Per sé (with an acute accent) means “for himself/for herself/for itself” (as in “He kept all the candies for himself”), while the Latin expression “per se” becomes di per sé or di per sé stesso/stessa (according to grammatical gender).

Do you put commas around per se?

Per se is an adverb meaning “by itself.” There's no need to place a comma before this phrase. To use “per se,” simply place it after the word or phrase it modifies. In other words, while a comma may be necessary if other grammatical rules require one “per se” itself doesn't per se require one.

Do you say per se or per say?

“Per se,” is correct as it is a Latin phrase for “by itself” or “in itself,” used to single out a particular element of a larger topic or refer to the essence of something. The phrase “per say” has no meaning, and the correct spelling is always “per se” because it is a Latin loanword retaining the Latin spelling.

Why is it called antitrust?

Antitrust law is the law of competition. Why then is it called “antitrust”? The answer is that these laws were originally established to check the abuses threatened or imposed by the immense “trusts” that emerged in the late 19th Century.

Is monopoly a criminal offense?

In United States antitrust law, monopolization is illegal monopoly behavior. ... Monopolization is a federal crime under Section 2 of the Sherman Antitrust Act of 1890.

Is price discrimination per se illegal?

All price fixing, except vertical maximum price-fixing, is per se illegal. This means that the unreasonableness of the restraint (and hence its illegality) is conclusively presumed from the fact that the price was fixed by concert of action.

Is negligence per se a tort?

Means negligence in itself. In a torts case, a defendant who violates a statute or regulation without an excuse is automatically considered to have breached her duty of care and is therefore negligent as a matter of law.

What is the rule of reason and examples?

For example, a manufacturer may restrict supply of a product in different geographic markets only to existing retailers so that they earn higher profits and have an incentive to advertise the product and provide better service to customers.

What are some examples of a monopoly?

Examples of American Monopolies
  • Standard Oil. One of the original and most famous examples of a monopoly is oil tycoon John D. ...
  • Microsoft. ...
  • Tyson Foods. ...
  • Google. ...
  • Meta (Formerly Facebook) ...
  • Salt Industry Commission. ...
  • De Beers Group. ...
  • Luxottica.

What happens when a company becomes a monopoly?

Monopolies FAQs

A monopoly is when one company and its product dominate an entire industry whereby there is little to no competition and consumers must purchase that specific good or service from the one company.

What laws prevent monopolies?

The main statutes are the Sherman Act of 1890, the Clayton Act of 1914 and the Federal Trade Commission Act of 1914. ... Third, Section 2 of the Sherman Act prohibits monopolization. Federal antitrust laws provide for both civil and criminal enforcement of antitrust laws.

What constitutes an antitrust violation?

The most common antitrust violations fall into two categories: (i) Agreements to restrain competition, and (ii) efforts to acquire a monopoly. ... Agreements between competitors that establish boundaries for pricing, such as setting a minimum or maximum price, are also prohibited.

What happens to stock when a company is broken up antitrust?

A split-up describes the action of a corporation segmenting into two or more separately-run entities. ... After split-ups are complete, shares of the original companies may be exchanged for shares in any of the new resulting entities, at the investor's discretion.

What is illegal under antitrust laws?

Antitrust laws are statutes or regulations designed to promote free and open markets. Also called “competition laws,” antitrust laws prohibit unfair competition. Competitors in an industry cannot use certain tactics, such as market division, price fixing, or agreements not to compete.

Is per se French or Latin?

Per se is a Latin phrase literally meaning “by itself.” It has the sense of “intrinsically,” or “in and of itself.” In everyday speech, it's commonly used to distinguish between two related ideas, as in, “He's not a sports fan per se, but he likes going to basketball games.”

Should per se be italicized?

Common Latin (or other) abbreviations or words should not be italicized, including cf., e.g., ad hoc, i.e., per se, inter alia, vis-à-vis and de facto.

Can you use per se in an essay?

Yes, although I would recommend using it only in its original meaning of "in or by itself or themselves". When it is used to mean "as such", it is just a buzzword. If you mean "as such", then write "as such".